a. Name of the competition:
b. Sponsors 1:
c. Sponsors 2:
d. Prizes 1:
e. Prizes 2:
f. Prizes 3:
g. Prizes 4:
h. Date of competition:
i.Entry submission deadline:
j.Number of prizes:
Read the following text. Then answer the questions (a) to (j)
Fill in the blanks using the information from the text.
a. Name of the competition:
b. Sponsors 1:
c. Sponsors 2:
d. Prizes 1:
e. Prizes 2:
f. Prizes 3:
g. Prizes 4:
h. Date of competition:
i.Entry submission deadline:
j.Number of prizes:
a. Name of the competition:
b. Sponsors 1:
c. Sponsors 2:
d. Prizes 1:
e. Prizes 2:
f. Prizes 3:
g. Prizes 4:
h. Date of competition:
i.Entry submission deadline:
j.Number of prizes:
Q: WRITE ABOUT IMPORTANT LESSONS LEARNT IN THE NOVEL
The importance of Family Love
(a) Andrea is a caring wife and mother
(b) Her love is so genuine towards them
(c) She was so worried to see John who always had bad dreams
(d) She thinks family bonding is more important than anything else in this world
(e) She helps John when he was stressed with his doppelganger
(f) John is very responsible towards his family
(g) He tries very hard to protect his family from any danger
Q: WRITE ABOUT MORAL VALUES LEARNT IN THE NOVEL
Determination
(a) John Taylor was determined to find out about the doppelganger
(b) He went to Felka utca and Gergely after work
(c) He went there with his wife, Andrea again
(d) He was determined to know why he met the mysterious man
(e) He finds out that the doppelganger wants to give him a message
(f) He knows that 18 January is an important date
(g) He works very hard to get the answer for the clue
(h) His determination paid off when he gets the answer for all his questions
(i) He was able to save his family, Andrea and Kati
Determination
(a) John Taylor was determined to find out about the doppelganger
(b) He went to Felka utca and Gergely after work
(c) He went there with his wife, Andrea again
(d) He was determined to know why he met the mysterious man
(e) He finds out that the doppelganger wants to give him a message
(f) He knows that 18 January is an important date
(g) He works very hard to get the answer for the clue
(h) His determination paid off when he gets the answer for all his questions
(i) He was able to save his family, Andrea and Kati
Q: THE CHARACTER THAT YOU ADMIRE THE MOST
(a) A computer programmer from England
(b) Sent to Budapest to teach programming
(c) Marries Andrea his language teacher
(d) Gets a baby girl, Kati Taylor
(e) Very persistence because never stop looking for information on his doppelganger
(f) Very determined to find out about the mysterious doppelganger
(g) Has a strong will-power because never give up even though he has to face a lot of problems
John Taylor
(a) A computer programmer from England
(b) Sent to Budapest to teach programming
(c) Marries Andrea his language teacher
(d) Gets a baby girl, Kati Taylor
(e) Very persistence because never stop looking for information on his doppelganger
(f) Very determined to find out about the mysterious doppelganger
(g) Has a strong will-power because never give up even though he has to face a lot of problems
HOW I MET MYSELF
(a) John Taylor wants to know the message that doppelganger wants to give him
(b) He searches very hard for the answer
(c) He talks to the housekeepers
(d) He starts doing research
(e) He goes to the library to look for old newspaper dating back to the 1940’s
(f) He meets Mrs. Kovacs and Szabo family
(g) Mrs.Fischer telss him the whole story
(h) Finally he finds the solution to his trouble
Q: WRITE ABOUT THEMES IN THE NOVEL
Theme of Perseverance
(a) John Taylor wants to know the message that doppelganger wants to give him
(b) He searches very hard for the answer
(c) He talks to the housekeepers
(d) He starts doing research
(e) He goes to the library to look for old newspaper dating back to the 1940’s
(f) He meets Mrs. Kovacs and Szabo family
(g) Mrs.Fischer telss him the whole story
(h) Finally he finds the solution to his trouble
Q: Read poem below and answer the question
THE RIVER
The River's a wanderer,
A nomad, a tramp,
He doesn't choose one place
To set his camp.
The River's a winder,
Through valley and hill
He twists and he turns,
He just cannot be still.
The River's a hoarder,
And he buries down deep
Those little treasures
That he wants to keep.
The River's a baby,
He gurgles and hums,
And sounds like he's happily
Sucking his thumbs.
The River's a singer,
As he dances along,
The countryside echoes
The notes of his song.
The River's a monster
Hungry and vexed,
He's gobbled up trees
And he'll swallow you next.
___________________________________________
Why is the river described as a hoarder?
P/s: Please come and see Pn. Mellissa for the answer. ;)
THE RIVER
The River's a wanderer,
A nomad, a tramp,
He doesn't choose one place
To set his camp.
The River's a winder,
Through valley and hill
He twists and he turns,
He just cannot be still.
The River's a hoarder,
And he buries down deep
Those little treasures
That he wants to keep.
The River's a baby,
He gurgles and hums,
And sounds like he's happily
Sucking his thumbs.
The River's a singer,
As he dances along,
The countryside echoes
The notes of his song.
The River's a monster
Hungry and vexed,
He's gobbled up trees
And he'll swallow you next.
___________________________________________
Why is the river described as a hoarder?
P/s: Please come and see Pn. Mellissa for the answer. ;)
Information Transfer
Soalan 1
Awareness ribbons are used to symbolize various concerns, right from diseases, like bone cancer symbolized by a white ribbon and HIV AIDS symbolized by a red ribbon to issues pertaining to the society such as environmental protection symbolized by a green ribbon. Sex trafficking symbolized by a blue ribbon. The colour of these ribbons plays a crucial role in depicting the cause.
While white ribbon is used to symbolize bone cancer, blue is used for colon cancer. Gray is for brain cancer and pink is for breast cancer. A gold ribbon is used as a symbol for leukemia and child cancer awareness programmes. A purple ribbon is used to spread awareness about Alzheimer’s disease.
While white ribbon is used to symbolize bone cancer, blue is used for colon cancer. Gray is for brain cancer and pink is for breast cancer. A gold ribbon is used as a symbol for leukemia and child cancer awareness programmes. A purple ribbon is used to spread awareness about Alzheimer’s disease.
| Ribbon | Symbolizes |
|---|---|
| White | |
| Red | |
| Blue | |
| Gray | |
| Pink | |
| Green | |
| Gold | |
| Purple |
P/S : YOU CAN GET THE ANSWERS FROM PN. MELLISSA ;)
Easy Information Transfer Steps (SPM 2008)
Hello endless learners.
For SPM students, Information Transfer in Section B - Paper 2 is one of the places where you should score full marks. This section is actually very-the-very easy to answer as the only thing you need to do is 'find the keywords'.
Using the real SPM 2008 questions, let us try to unlock the tricks to answering this section and getting your full mark of 10 over 10. Simply follow this step by step guide. Ready? Let's go!
Easy Information Transfer Steps
So there are 10 questions from number 16-25. Let's take a look at the first part which is a diagram. The article is about The History of The Olympics. In the question, students need to fill in answer (to be taken from the text) on the differences between Ancient Olympics andModern Olympics (as underlined in red).
I've highlighted 3 key words in the questions being Competitors, Prize and Purpose of the Games.
SECOND: Read the text/ diagram given and try to find matching keywords
Right, again, I have identified 4 keywords from the 4 questions which are:
For SPM students, Information Transfer in Section B - Paper 2 is one of the places where you should score full marks. This section is actually very-the-very easy to answer as the only thing you need to do is 'find the keywords'.
Using the real SPM 2008 questions, let us try to unlock the tricks to answering this section and getting your full mark of 10 over 10. Simply follow this step by step guide. Ready? Let's go!
Easy Information Transfer Steps
- Read the questions first and identify the keywords you need to get your answer.
- Read the text/ diagram given and try to find matching keywords.
- The answer is normally in the same sentence as the keyword you found in the text/ diagram.
FIRST: Read the questions first and identify the keywords you need to get your answer
 |
| First part of the question |
I've highlighted 3 key words in the questions being Competitors, Prize and Purpose of the Games.
SECOND: Read the text/ diagram given and try to find matching keywords
 |
| First part of the text |
From the underlined Ancient Olympics and Modern Olympics, I have zoomed in the second and third part of the passage. Then I examined the text to find the keywords.
The keywords found for Competitors is compete and for Prize is winner. Meanwhile for Purpose there is no direct keyword but students need to understand the meaning of purpose.
THREE: The answer is normally in the same sentence as the keyword you found in the text/ diagram
Let's look at the section Ancient Olympics.
- Competitors - compete without clothes (The word compete helps you find the answer without clothes)
- Prize - winner/ a crown of olive leaves (From the word winner, student can find the answer which is a crown of olive leaves as the prize)
- Purpose of the Games - to honour Gods in Greek mythology (To get this answer, student must understand the meaning of purpose)
Now, look at the section Modern Olympics.
- Competitors - women to compete along with men (The answer is in the same sentence as the keyword compete)
- Prize - winners / Medals/ Gold Medals/ Silver Medals/ Bronze Medals (From the word winner, student can find the answer which is medals as the prize)
- Purpose of the Games - unites the world (To get this answer, student must understand the meaning of purpose.)
Okay, we have found the answers for question 16 to 21. Next, let us have a look at the second part of the question, 22 - 25.
 |
| Second part of the question |
- Logo
- Five colours/ represent
- Meaning/ Olympic motto
- Traditional Custom/ Remains
 |
| Second part of the text |
If you observe the text, all of the keywords we have identified can be found in the last part of the passage. So, from the keyword, students should be able to identify the answers as the following:
- Logo - The Olympic Rings
- Five Colours/ Represents - The unity of five continents
- Olympic motto/ Meaning - "swifter, higher, stronger"
- Traditional Custom/ Remains - the lighting of the Olympic flame
Thus teachers, the only thing left for us to train our students is how to find the keywords and match them appropriately. Only some questions may deviate and need further understanding of words or text but most of them will give direct answers.
For very weak students, they may not know which part of the text to select although they have found the keywords. Let them copy the entire sentence if it is not too long (less than 5 words).
There you go, this guide actually shows how easy it is to score in Information Transfer Section. Students who read English materials constantly should be able to score a 10. On the other hand, weak students if they know how to spell and match the keywords, they should be able to get at least 6 marks.
Footnote:
*This question is taken from the real SPM 2008 Paper 2 under Section B.
*This is not the real answer scheme.
iThink
Thinking Maps are a set of graphic
organizer techniques used in primary and secondary education ("K-12").
There are eight diagram types that are intended to correspond with eight
different fundamental thinking processes. They are supposed to provide a common
visual language to information structure, often employed when students take
notes.
Thinking Maps are visual tools
for learning, and include eight visual patterns each linked to a specific
cognitive process. Teachers may apply Thinking Maps in all content areas and
all grade levels. The eight map types are:
used
for defining in context
used
for describing with adjectives
·
Flow Map
used
for sequencing and ordering events
used
for identifying part/whole relationships
·
Tree Map
used
for classifying or grouping
used
for comparing and contrasting
used
for analyzing causes and effects
used
for illustrating analogies
By linking each thinking skill to
a unique and dynamic visual representation, the language of Thinking Maps
becomes a tool set for supporting effective instructional practice and
improving student performance. Teachers and students, therefore, independently
apply thinking skills for their own learning while also having a common visual
language for cooperative learning. By having a rich language of visual maps
based on thinking processes, learners are no longer confused by poorly
organized brainstorming webs or an endless array of static graphic organizers.
They are enabled to move from concrete to abstract concepts, think with depth,
and directly apply their thinking to complex tasks.
12 Things Successful People Do in the First Hour of the Workday
The first hour of the workday is critical, since it can impact your productivity level and mindset for the rest of the day.
"Successful people understand the importance of having control over their mornings and know how to use that time wisely," says Lynn Taylor, a national workplace expert and author of "Tame Your Terrible Office Tyrant; How to Manage Childish Boss Behavior and Thrive in Your Job." "These people are able to weed out the noise in their first hour and focus on what matters."
Everyone has their unique method of prioritizing, she says. "But all successful people stay focused when they start their day, and with years of practice, they realize that many things can wait, and others cannot."
Here are 12 things successful people do in the first hour of the workday:
They step back and reflect. Taylor says it's important to take a moment to look at the big picture. "It's easy to jump in and 'just do it' when you get to work, but successful people look at their larger goals in order to better prioritize."
They strategize. Successful people take a few minutes at the start of their workday to think about where their career or business should be going, says Laura Vanderkam, author of "What the Most Successful People Do Before Breakfast." "Few people spend much time on these questions to begin with, let alone when their brains are fresh. But pursuing strategic clarity is a worthy objective. It's hard to get somewhere if you don't know where you're going."
They check their to-do lists and calendars. You don't want to overwhelm yourself first thing in the morning, but it's important that you take a quick look at your to-do list and calendar to know what's ahead. Missing any early meetings or deadlines would likely cause stress and could ruin your entire day.
They update their to-do lists and calendars. "Without a plan, you can't spend your time wisely; but plans must be adaptable," Taylor explains. Early in the day is the best time to update your schedule.
They acknowledge and plan for the tough projects. There are always difficult projects looming that get put aside. "Address how you're going to attack them first thing so they don't hang over your head all day," Taylor says.
They don't address "people conflict." Successful people know that timing is everything. If you need to resolve conflict with your peers or boss, don't engage first thing, Taylor says. "Your colleagues are likely overwhelmed when they arrive to work, so you'll want to wait a few hours until everyone is more relaxed, which is usually after lunch," she suggests.
They write something that requires thought. Writing requires discipline, and research finds that willpower is at its peak early in the day, after a good breakfast, Vanderkam says. "Like a muscle, willpower gets fatigued from overuse in the course of the day as you respond to distractions and difficult people." The first hour of the day can be a great time to write a well-crafted email introducing yourself to a new client, a proposal or report, marketing materials, or even an op-ed or article.
They greet the team. Good, successful bosses and employees are aware of their team, and they take the time to greet them first thing. "It shows compassion and naturally builds rapport and camaraderie," Taylor says. "This is the first hour of their day, too, and your actions have a significant impact on their attitude and productivity."
They glance at emails. "There's the famous instruction from Julie Morgenstern that we should never check email in the morning," Vanderkam says. "It makes sense. You want to start the day in a proactive fashion, not a reactive fashion. However, I'm pretty sure 99 percent of us do check email pretty near the start of the day." The trick is to glance at it, and not get bogged down in stuff that doesn't matter, she explains.
They avoid distraction. The latest headline or office drama can cause anyone to be distracted, no matter how high up the chain you are. "While the curiosity can be overwhelming, focused professionals inherently know when they're taking themselves off-track," Taylor says.
They don't hold meetings. "I'd say the most important thing to not do during that first hour is hold a meeting, unless it requires every ounce of focus and concentration you have," Vanderkam explains. "It's better to put meetings at low energy times (mid-afternoon for many people), and do projects that require focus at high-energy times when you feel most motivated to tackle them. Most people feel more energized and motivated in the morning."
They relax. This one is difficult for most people, but successful individuals understand the importance of creating a few minutes of peace before jumping in. "It helps you better approach the issues at hand," Taylor says. Taking a moment to stretch and breathe will help you make better decisions during this chaotic time of day.
❤️❤️No Strings Attached❤️❤️
No Strings Attached
What does the phrase “no strings attached” mean?
It refers to the act of doing something without asking for anything in return.
Example of use: Danny said he’d do your chores today, no strings attached!
Interesting fact
The origin of the idiom “no strings attached” is directly tied to 18th century fabric merchants who would mark flaws in woven cloth by tying small strings to the bottom of the bolts at the locations where flaws were present. When a tailor or dressmaker needed flawless cloth, he or she would ask the merchant to provide them with fabric “with no strings attached.” This custom persists today.❤️❤️Show of Hands❤️❤️
Show of Hands
Means: Raising hands to vote about something.
Example of use: By a show of hands, how many of you would prefer to have the test on Friday?
Interesting fact
Voting can take place in many ways and one of the most common is described as a “show of hands.” The origin of the idiom “a show of hands” is believed to be 1789 England.PT3 ENGLISH EXAMINATION (SHARED VIA http://nanciesaw.blogspot.com)
For the past two days, I had the opportunity of attending the PT3 course. I will fill everyone in with what I've been enlightened so far. It was an exciting two days although I personally enjoyed the second day more. You will find out the reason as you read on. All of us have been wondering how PT3 is going to be like and now, we are almost at the end of the tunnel. Not quite just yet but nearly there....=D I am honoured to be chosen to attend this course. In this course, we were taught to 'set' the questions and mark the papers. However, in this post I will only share the layout of the assessment and explain about the marking scheme for PT3 - English.
Day 1:
We touched on written test which I am sure most of us would have seen it by now. For the benefit of those who hasn't, I will put it up for your perusal section by section.
I will first explain about the different parts of PT3 (Pentaksiran Tingkatan Tiga) papers before scrutinising one by one. So there are FOUR parts to the English paper. Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing. All the four skills will be tested.
Written Paper will be conducted between 12-17 October 2014. There are 5 written papers for PT3. Since it is a school based assessment, the school will set the assessment timetable. Hence, it will be different for each school but every school must start and finish the examination on the given dates.
Duration of the whole paper : 2 hours
Section A - 15 minutes
Section B - 40 minutes
Section C - 20 minutes
Section D - 45 minutes
Section A: Question 1 - Error Correction
Students will be asked to identify the errors, underline them and fill the correct answers in the blanks provided. Each line will consist of only ONE error. It will be testing solely on grammar.
For example: tenses, SVA, adverb, preposition, article (no spelling or punctuation error tested)
Marking scheme:
2 marks will be awarded when error identified is underlined and corrected. (that's clear cut)
1 mark will be awarded when error identified is underlined but wrongly corrected.
No marks will be awarded when error identified is NOT underlined but corrected.
Therefore, it is very crucial to remind our students that underlining the errors is a MUST.
If you look at the total marks for this section, it is 10 marks only. However, looking at the marking scheme, 1 mark is awarded for identifying error and 1 mark is awarded for correcting the error. There are total of 10 question, hence making it 20 marks altogether. When you count, add up the number of the correct answers and divide it by 2. That is the total marks the students will get for that section.
For example:
After marking, the student scores a total of 14 marks (identifying+correcting). Then, you take 14 divided by 2 and you will get 7 out of 10 marks for this section.
Section B: Question 2 - Limited Response (Information Transfer)
Students will be given a passage, read and transfer the information into the graphic organiser given.
Marking scheme:
1 mark given for every right answer. Students are not allowed to paraphrase the answers. They are supposed to TRANSFER the information required FROM the text to the graphic organiser.
For example:
If the phrase that the student is supposed to transfer is 'gain knowledge' but the student wrote, 'get knowledge' (This is acceptable - minor grammatical error)
If the phrase that the student is supposed to transfer is 'do well in school' but the student wrote, 'score good marks in exam' (This is wrong - paraphrasing)
However, if students change the grammatical structure of the phrase, for example:
If the word given in the text is 'businessman' but students wrote 'businessmen' (This is acceptable - a matter of singular and plural) OR
'read books' instead of 'read a book' (This is acceptable - article)
Section B: Question 3 - Non- Linear Text Comprehension
The first part is TRUE or FALSE questions. (Always encourage students to write TRUE or FALSE).
However, if students still insist in writing T or F or give a 'tick' symbol and an 'X' as their answers at the end of the day, it is still acceptable.
BUT
If their answer is 'Yes' or 'No', then it is unacceptable.
Followed by questions which require students to write the answers. The answers do not need to be a complete sentence. As long as the key words are there, marks will be awarded.
For example:
e) Where can tourists go to visit museums?
Answer: Penang
It doesn't need to be: Tourists can go to visit museums in Penang.
After that, you have finding the phrases from the passage to match the meanings given.
For this part, marks will still be awarded although minor grammatical errors are made as long as meanings are not distorted.
For example: 'local food and delicacies' - mouth watering Malaysian cuisine. (this is acceptable
although this is considered over lifting)
'an overall sight from a high angle' - a bird eye view (this is acceptable although it should have
been a bird's eye view)
For the final question of this section:
Students will need to write a short response in which the sample given was to write a postcard.
The question:
You plan to visit one of the popular destinations in Malaysia. In about 50 words, write a postcard to your friend. In your postcard:
This is the descriptors that we receive during the course and I have put in the marks according to the descriptors.
Section C: Question 4 - Linear Text - Comprehension Passage
Basically the way this question is marked is similar to Question 3 (refer to the one highlighted in blue above)
Take note:
For Question c:
Examiners take your first two answers if you happen to give three answers.
For instance:
i) students give two points with one right and one wrong (1 mark)
ii) students give one correct point (0 mark)
Total marks: 1/2
i) students give two points but all wrong (0 mark)
ii) students give 1 correct point (0 mark)
Total marks: 0
i) students give two correct points (2 marks)
ii) no answer (nevermind, because for the first point, the student already give 2 points)
Total marks: 2/2
Section C: Question 5 - Literature
Only poems will be tested in this section. (Forms1-3)
Marking scheme:
The way this section is marked is still the same. Probably I'll just highlight the last question where they usually ask for students' opinions. (HOTS - higher order thinking skills)
For example:
If you were 'Dad' would you answer the questions asked by the persona? Give a reason.
If students answer Yes followed by an acceptable reason - 2 marks
If students just give an acceptable reason without answering the first question - 1 mark
If students answer Yes without any reason - 0 mark
Section D: Question 6 - Guided Writing
Students will be required to write an essay between 120-150 words.
Prompts will be given.
Section D: Question 7 - Novel
For this section, students are required to write about a character that shows determination based on a novel that the students have read.
Marking scheme:
Students should write the answer in 4 paragraphs.
1st paragraph - Introduction
2nd paragraph - 1st point + evidence
3nd paragraph - 2nd point + evidence
4th paragraph - Conclusion
It will be assessed based on:
reading skills - understanding the rubric and fulfilling the requirements of the writing task
thinking skills - ability to reflect in depth and show maturity of thinking by giving ideas, reasons and supporting them with appropriate elaborations
language skills. - language used is appropriate to provide correct tone, form and content as required by the task. Accuracy of the language is also being assessed.
Marking Criteria for Questions 6 and 7
Day 2:
I guess this is the most awaited part because everyone is clueless as to how it is conducted (at least that was how I felt. I was so looking forward to learning how listening and speaking test will be conducted)
Listening Test
The listening test comprises of TWO sections:
Section A - 10 multiple choice questions (objective)
Section B - 10 limited response questions (subjective)
Duration - 30 minutes (15 minutes for each section)
Date - 13 August 2014
Here are the sample questions that we received during the course. I am not sure if it was already uploaded to the Internet before this.
Total marks - 20 marks
Duration - 30 minutes
Schools will be given CDs which have the recordings for students to listen to. So don't worry about getting the questions or setting it yourself.
As usual, the questions will be played twice and from what I've heard just now, the recording is artificial in the sense that the pace has been slowed down and it is not spoken by a native speaker either. Having said that, these are just sample instruments, the Lembaga may change when the schools receive the CD. Nothing is for sure as of now. As I've mentioned earlier, these are just sample instruments.
Marking scheme:
For the MCQ section, there's no issue regarding how it is marked. However, there was a heated discussion just now during the course regarding the first section of Section B - limited response question.
This is the transcript that was being played during the course just now:
Name of competition : Public Speaking (no issue)
Date : 5th October
Venue : Diamond Hall
Number of participants : 14
Champion : Lisa
Marking system:
OK, here comes the best part. *rubs hands*
For the date:
If the student wrote 5/10, it is unacceptable because it could be interpreted as 5 OVER 10. -_________- (only if the year is mentioned, then students are allowed to write 5/10/2014 - FOR EXAMPLE)
If students write 5 Okt./Oktober, it is also unacceptable. (just because the spelling is in Malay)
If students write FIVE October, it is acceptable (HOW COME?!) or
If students write entertainmen or cuisin, it is acceptable. (minor spelling error which does not distort the sound is acceptable)
OK, now you can throw in your arguments.
For the venue and champion,
It is acceptable if the spelling for Diamond is Daimen or Lisa as Lyssa because they are considered proper noun.
But the date.......UNTIL NOW....I still don't understand. We are testing listening skills but why are students being penalised for wrong spellings. Wrong spellings doesn't show that the student can't listen and comprehend...I know this is English and the spelling should be in English, but, we are testing listening skills. We already have the part where we test their spellings which is the written test. Besides, what happened to Communicative Language Teaching approach where we emphasise on fluency more than accuracy??
I think the rest of the paper is quite clear cut. =) *sorry for my outburst earlier*
Speaking Test
There are two sections to this test as well.
Section A - Reading Aloud
Section B - Spoken Interaction
Total marks - 30 marks
Duration - 10 minutes
Section A - Reading Aloud
Students will choose one out of 3 texts to be read aloud in front of the teacher.
Marking scheme:
The marking scheme (above) will be given to the examiner. Basically, students will be assessed based on their:
pronunciation and articulation
fluency and rhythm
awareness of audience, purpose and context. (in this context, the audience will be the teacher but purpose and context depends on the type of passage the student is reading.)
Section B - Spoken Interaction (the unimaginable..nightmare for my kids...T.T)
10 questions will be given and students can choose one of the ten questions.
For example: One of the topics is regarding hobbies.
We are going to talk about hobbies. You have a moment to think about this topic.
[Pause]
PROMPTS
Marking scheme:
Assessment criteria for Spoken Interaction (above) is based on the following:
personal response
fluency
language accuracy
pronunciation
1 mark is awarded for students if any other language is used predominantly.
No mark is awarded if students do not give any response in English.
Disclaimer:
Everything that has been shared here is strictly sample instruments. It may not appear the same on the actual PT3 English paper . Any views or opinions are solely those of the author and it does not necessarily represent those of Kementerian Pelajaran Malaysia or Lembaga Peperiksaan Malaysia.
Day 1:
We touched on written test which I am sure most of us would have seen it by now. For the benefit of those who hasn't, I will put it up for your perusal section by section.
I will first explain about the different parts of PT3 (Pentaksiran Tingkatan Tiga) papers before scrutinising one by one. So there are FOUR parts to the English paper. Listening, Speaking, Reading and Writing. All the four skills will be tested.
Written Paper will be conducted between 12-17 October 2014. There are 5 written papers for PT3. Since it is a school based assessment, the school will set the assessment timetable. Hence, it will be different for each school but every school must start and finish the examination on the given dates.
Duration of the whole paper : 2 hours
Section A - 15 minutes
Section B - 40 minutes
Section C - 20 minutes
Section D - 45 minutes
Section A: Question 1 - Error Correction
 |
| Sorry that I posted without rotating this picture! |
Students will be asked to identify the errors, underline them and fill the correct answers in the blanks provided. Each line will consist of only ONE error. It will be testing solely on grammar.
For example: tenses, SVA, adverb, preposition, article (no spelling or punctuation error tested)
Marking scheme:
2 marks will be awarded when error identified is underlined and corrected. (that's clear cut)
1 mark will be awarded when error identified is underlined but wrongly corrected.
No marks will be awarded when error identified is NOT underlined but corrected.
Therefore, it is very crucial to remind our students that underlining the errors is a MUST.
If you look at the total marks for this section, it is 10 marks only. However, looking at the marking scheme, 1 mark is awarded for identifying error and 1 mark is awarded for correcting the error. There are total of 10 question, hence making it 20 marks altogether. When you count, add up the number of the correct answers and divide it by 2. That is the total marks the students will get for that section.
For example:
After marking, the student scores a total of 14 marks (identifying+correcting). Then, you take 14 divided by 2 and you will get 7 out of 10 marks for this section.
Section B: Question 2 - Limited Response (Information Transfer)
Students will be given a passage, read and transfer the information into the graphic organiser given.
Marking scheme:
1 mark given for every right answer. Students are not allowed to paraphrase the answers. They are supposed to TRANSFER the information required FROM the text to the graphic organiser.
For example:
If the phrase that the student is supposed to transfer is 'gain knowledge' but the student wrote, 'get knowledge' (This is acceptable - minor grammatical error)
If the phrase that the student is supposed to transfer is 'do well in school' but the student wrote, 'score good marks in exam' (This is wrong - paraphrasing)
However, if students change the grammatical structure of the phrase, for example:
If the word given in the text is 'businessman' but students wrote 'businessmen' (This is acceptable - a matter of singular and plural) OR
'read books' instead of 'read a book' (This is acceptable - article)
Section B: Question 3 - Non- Linear Text Comprehension
The first part is TRUE or FALSE questions. (Always encourage students to write TRUE or FALSE).
However, if students still insist in writing T or F or give a 'tick' symbol and an 'X' as their answers at the end of the day, it is still acceptable.
BUT
If their answer is 'Yes' or 'No', then it is unacceptable.
Followed by questions which require students to write the answers. The answers do not need to be a complete sentence. As long as the key words are there, marks will be awarded.
For example:
e) Where can tourists go to visit museums?
Answer: Penang
It doesn't need to be: Tourists can go to visit museums in Penang.
After that, you have finding the phrases from the passage to match the meanings given.
For this part, marks will still be awarded although minor grammatical errors are made as long as meanings are not distorted.
For example: 'local food and delicacies' - mouth watering Malaysian cuisine. (this is acceptable
although this is considered over lifting)
'an overall sight from a high angle' - a bird eye view (this is acceptable although it should have
been a bird's eye view)
For the final question of this section:
Students will need to write a short response in which the sample given was to write a postcard.
The question:
You plan to visit one of the popular destinations in Malaysia. In about 50 words, write a postcard to your friend. In your postcard:
- encourage him/her to join you
- give reasons to support your choice
- add other relevant information to make your writing interesting
This is the descriptors that we receive during the course and I have put in the marks according to the descriptors.
Section C: Question 4 - Linear Text - Comprehension Passage
Basically the way this question is marked is similar to Question 3 (refer to the one highlighted in blue above)
Take note:
For Question c:
Examiners take your first two answers if you happen to give three answers.
For instance:
i) students give two points with one right and one wrong (1 mark)
ii) students give one correct point (0 mark)
Total marks: 1/2
i) students give two points but all wrong (0 mark)
ii) students give 1 correct point (0 mark)
Total marks: 0
i) students give two correct points (2 marks)
ii) no answer (nevermind, because for the first point, the student already give 2 points)
Total marks: 2/2
Section C: Question 5 - Literature
Only poems will be tested in this section. (Forms1-3)
Marking scheme:
The way this section is marked is still the same. Probably I'll just highlight the last question where they usually ask for students' opinions. (HOTS - higher order thinking skills)
For example:
If you were 'Dad' would you answer the questions asked by the persona? Give a reason.
If students answer Yes followed by an acceptable reason - 2 marks
If students just give an acceptable reason without answering the first question - 1 mark
If students answer Yes without any reason - 0 mark
Section D: Question 6 - Guided Writing
Students will be required to write an essay between 120-150 words.
Prompts will be given.
Section D: Question 7 - Novel
For this section, students are required to write about a character that shows determination based on a novel that the students have read.
Marking scheme:
Students should write the answer in 4 paragraphs.
1st paragraph - Introduction
2nd paragraph - 1st point + evidence
3nd paragraph - 2nd point + evidence
4th paragraph - Conclusion
It will be assessed based on:
reading skills - understanding the rubric and fulfilling the requirements of the writing task
thinking skills - ability to reflect in depth and show maturity of thinking by giving ideas, reasons and supporting them with appropriate elaborations
language skills. - language used is appropriate to provide correct tone, form and content as required by the task. Accuracy of the language is also being assessed.
Marking Criteria for Questions 6 and 7
Day 2:
I guess this is the most awaited part because everyone is clueless as to how it is conducted (at least that was how I felt. I was so looking forward to learning how listening and speaking test will be conducted)
Listening Test
The listening test comprises of TWO sections:
Section A - 10 multiple choice questions (objective)
Section B - 10 limited response questions (subjective)
Duration - 30 minutes (15 minutes for each section)
Date - 13 August 2014
Here are the sample questions that we received during the course. I am not sure if it was already uploaded to the Internet before this.
Duration - 30 minutes
Schools will be given CDs which have the recordings for students to listen to. So don't worry about getting the questions or setting it yourself.
As usual, the questions will be played twice and from what I've heard just now, the recording is artificial in the sense that the pace has been slowed down and it is not spoken by a native speaker either. Having said that, these are just sample instruments, the Lembaga may change when the schools receive the CD. Nothing is for sure as of now. As I've mentioned earlier, these are just sample instruments.
Marking scheme:
For the MCQ section, there's no issue regarding how it is marked. However, there was a heated discussion just now during the course regarding the first section of Section B - limited response question.
This is the transcript that was being played during the course just now:
In conjunction with the Language month, a Public Speaking competition was held. It was to encourage students to speak in English. It was held on the 5th of October at 10 o'clock in the morning. Mrs Kumar took a few supporters to The Diamond Hall where the competition was held. There were supporters from the other states too. There were 14 finalists representing every state. It could clearly be seen that some of the speakers were nervous. Lisa jumped with joy when she heard her name being announced as the winner.Question and answer:
Name of competition : Public Speaking (no issue)
Date : 5th October
Venue : Diamond Hall
Number of participants : 14
Champion : Lisa
Marking system:
OK, here comes the best part. *rubs hands*
For the date:
If the student wrote 5/10, it is unacceptable because it could be interpreted as 5 OVER 10. -_________- (only if the year is mentioned, then students are allowed to write 5/10/2014 - FOR EXAMPLE)
If students write 5 Okt./Oktober, it is also unacceptable. (just because the spelling is in Malay)
If students write FIVE October, it is acceptable (HOW COME?!) or
If students write entertainmen or cuisin, it is acceptable. (minor spelling error which does not distort the sound is acceptable)
OK, now you can throw in your arguments.
For the venue and champion,
It is acceptable if the spelling for Diamond is Daimen or Lisa as Lyssa because they are considered proper noun.
But the date.......UNTIL NOW....I still don't understand. We are testing listening skills but why are students being penalised for wrong spellings. Wrong spellings doesn't show that the student can't listen and comprehend...I know this is English and the spelling should be in English, but, we are testing listening skills. We already have the part where we test their spellings which is the written test. Besides, what happened to Communicative Language Teaching approach where we emphasise on fluency more than accuracy??
I think the rest of the paper is quite clear cut. =) *sorry for my outburst earlier*
Speaking Test
There are two sections to this test as well.
Section A - Reading Aloud
Section B - Spoken Interaction
Total marks - 30 marks
Duration - 10 minutes
Section A - Reading Aloud
Students will choose one out of 3 texts to be read aloud in front of the teacher.
Marking scheme:
The marking scheme (above) will be given to the examiner. Basically, students will be assessed based on their:
pronunciation and articulation
fluency and rhythm
awareness of audience, purpose and context. (in this context, the audience will be the teacher but purpose and context depends on the type of passage the student is reading.)
Section B - Spoken Interaction (the unimaginable..nightmare for my kids...T.T)
10 questions will be given and students can choose one of the ten questions.
For example: One of the topics is regarding hobbies.
We are going to talk about hobbies. You have a moment to think about this topic.
[Pause]
PROMPTS
- Do you have a hobby?
- Can you tell me something about your hobby?
- What are the benefits of having a hobby?
- Imagine one of your friends wants to take up a hobby. Suggest a hobby your friend could take up.
- Why would you suggest this hobby?
Marking scheme:
Assessment criteria for Spoken Interaction (above) is based on the following:
personal response
fluency
language accuracy
pronunciation
1 mark is awarded for students if any other language is used predominantly.
No mark is awarded if students do not give any response in English.
Disclaimer:
Everything that has been shared here is strictly sample instruments. It may not appear the same on the actual PT3 English paper . Any views or opinions are solely those of the author and it does not necessarily represent those of Kementerian Pelajaran Malaysia or Lembaga Peperiksaan Malaysia.
Any views or opinions expressed are solely those of the author and do not necessarily represent those of - See more at: http://www.nibusinessinfo.co.uk/content/sample-business-email-disclaimer#sthash.6vLr2cko.dpuf
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